Thursday 27 February 2014

100 SSC General Knowledge MCQs : The Constitution of India




1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency.
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject.
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above .

4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject.
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

5. Who declares the financial emergency.
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament.
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors”
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published
(A) The report must be a report of the `proceedings' of a House of the Union or a State
Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and
must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a report as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report
would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above .

16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution
(A) Treaty, Agreement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above .

17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution
(A) Any territory recognized by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognized
(D) B & C

18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognized by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 .

19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constitution
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of  Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of  Parliament
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public
importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above
44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirement for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above

57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18 .

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on
Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad-hoc Committees in Parliament are
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or
Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad-hoc Committee on Parliament
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government .

89. What is the nature of India's political system
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of  Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article empowers amendment in the Constitution of India
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of
Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above



Important Banking Facts


बैंकों के बारे में कुछ महत्वपूर्ण जानकारी

1. भारत में खुलने वाला पहला बैंक – बैंक ऑफ हिन्दुस्तान (सन् 1770 में खुला)
2. चेक सिस्टम जारी करने वाला भारत का पहला बैंक – बंगाल बैंक (Bengal Bank) द्वारा पहली बार सन् 1784 में चेक सिस्टम जारी किया गया
3. बचत खाता (Savings Bank a/c) खोलने वाला भारत का प्रथम बैंक – प्रेसीडेंसी बैंक (Presidency Bank) द्वारा पहली बार सन् 1830 में
4. भारत में खुलने वाला पहला विदेशी बैंक – Comptoire d’Escompte de Paris of France (सन् 1860 में खुला)
5. वर्तमान में कार्यरत भारत का सबसे पुराना बैंक – इलाहाबाद बैंक (Allahabad Bank)
6. विदेश में शाखा खोलने वाला भारत का प्रथम बैंक – बैंक ऑफ इन्डिया ने सन् 1946 में भारत के बाहर लंदन में पहली बार अपनी शाखा खोली
7. म्युचुअल फंड आरम्भ करने वाला प्रथम बैंक – भारतीय स्टेट बैंक (State Bank of India)
8. क्रेडिट कार्ड जारी करने वाला प्रथम बैंक – सेंट्रल बैंक ऑफ इन्डिया
9. ATM सेवा शुरू करने वाला प्रथम बैंक – HSBC
10. इन्टरनेट बैंकिंग सेवा शुरू करने वाला प्रथम बैंक – ICICI

Interesting Facts About India



  • India is the largest democracy in the world, the 7th largest Country in the world, and one of the most ancient civilizations.
  • India never invaded any country in her last 100000 years of history.
  • Chess was invented in India.
  • Algebra, Trigonometry and Calculus are studies, which originated in India.
  • The 'Place Value System' and the 'Decimal System' were developed in India in 100 B.C.
  • The World's First Granite Temple is the Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu. The shikhara of the temple is made from a single 80-tonne piece of granite. This magnificent temple was built in just five years, (between 1004 AD and 1009 AD) during the reign of Rajaraja Chola.
  • The largest employer in India is the Indian Railways, employing over a million people.
  •  India has the largest number of Post Offices in the world.
  • The world's first university was established in Takshila in 700 BC. More than 10,500 students from all over the world studied more than 60 subjects. The University of Nalanda built in the 4th century was one of the greatest achievements of ancient India in the field of education.
  • Until 1896, India was the only source of diamonds in the world. (Source: Gemological Institute of America).
  • Ayurveda is the earliest school of medicine known to mankind. The Father of Medicine, Charaka, consolidated Ayurveda 2500 years ago.
  • Sushruta is regarded as the Father of Surgery. Over2600 years ago Sushrata & his team conducted complicated surgeries like cataract, artificial limbs, cesareans, fractures, urinary stones, plastic surgery and brain surgeries.
  • The Indian Maritime University was formed by an Act of Parliament in 2008 encompassing the National Maritime Academy Chennai, LBS College of Advanced Maritime Studies and Research Mumbai, T. S. Chanakya Mumbai, Marine Engineering and Research Institute (MERI) Mumbai, Marine Engineering and Research Institute (MERI) Kolkata, Indian Institute of Port Management Kolkata and National Ship Design and Research Centre Visakhapatnam in its fold.

[PDF] SSC CGL GK Questions in Hindi : Click here


List of all Mughal Empeors in Indian history
  1. Babur (1526-1530)
  2. Humayun (1530-1540,55-56)
  3. Akbar (1556-1605)
  4. Jahangir (1605-1627)
  5. Shah Jahan (1627-1658)
  6. Aurang Zeb (1658-1707) 
  7. Bahadur Shah 1 (1707-1712)
  8. Jahandar Shah (1712-1713)
  9. Furrukhsiyar (1713-1719)
  10. Rafi-ul-Darjat (1719)
  11. Rafi-ud-Daulat (1719) 
  12. Nikusiyar (1719)
  13. Muhammad Ibrahim (1720) 
  14. Muhammad Shah (1719-1748)
  15. AhmadShahBahadur (1748-54)
  16. Alamgir || (1754-1759)
  17. Shah Jahan III (1759)
  18. Shah Alam II (1759-1806)
  19. Akbar Shah II (1806-1837)
  20. ShahZafar (1837-57)


Current Affairs : 22 february 2014




  •  The Indian economy is much more resilient to external shocks now than was last year, a top IMF official has said, attributing this to a series of administrative decisions and policy measures taken by the Union Government.
  • UIDAI Chairman Nandan Nilekani said he will resign from his job by March-end to contest Lok Sabha election on Congress ticket.
  • India test-fired the indigenously developed surface-to-air Akash missile from the Integrated Test Range launch complex at Chandipur.
  • A committee has been constituted under the chairmanship of M.P. Bezbaruah, Member, North Eastern Council and other members to look into the various kinds of concerns of the persons hailing from the North Eastern States who are living in different parts of the country, especially the Metropolitan areas.
  • The Supreme Court agreed to hear the Aam Aadmi Party's plea seeking a direction to the Lieutenant Governor to dissolve Delhi Assembly and hold fresh polls along with Lok Sabha elections. 
  • The Uttar Pradesh government tabled an Interim Budget of Rs 2,59,848.68 crore for 2014-15 fiscal with an estimated deficit of Rs 5,181.71 crore.
  •  The Rajya Sabha passed a resolution to impose President's rule in Delhi.
  • Eminent writer and grandson of Mahatma Gandhi, Raj Mohan Gandhi has joined the Aam Aadmi Party in New Delhi. 
  • Saradha Group head Sudipto Sen was sentenced to three years in prison for defaulting on depositing the provident fund dues of his employees.
  • The 2014 Laureus World Sports Awards ceremony will take place at the Istana Budaya March 26.

Tips To Ace Any Job Interview





First, understand that all interviewers are attempting to evaluate the following:

  • How skilled you are and how you applied these skills on the job ?
  • If what you've accomplished is comparable to what needs to be accomplished ? 
  • How you’d fit with the team, work well with the hiring manager, and fit with the company “culture” 
  • Your level of drive, initiative, and motivation.
  • Your upside potential.
While all of these factors are important, how they’re measured is pretty unscientific. Techies overvalue the depth of a person’s technical brilliance. Just about all non-techies overvalue the candidate’s first impression, appearance, warmth, and friendliness. Most managers overvalue their intuition and gut feel. Just about everyone has their own pet questions and private techniques they swear by to decide yay or nay. And right or wrong, everyone makes their assessment on all of these things based on how well you communicate your answers. Given this state of affairs, here’s some advice on how to not blow the interview. It starts by communicating better.

Talk in paragraphs, not sentences

The big idea is to talk for 2-3 minutes in response to any question. Short one or two sentence answers are deal-breakers. In these cases, the interviewer has to work too hard to pry the information out of the candidate, and since they don't know what information they need pry out, it will likely be wrong. So talk more than less, but no more than 2-3 minutes per answer, otherwise you're considered boring, ego-centric, and insensitive.

You should practice the multi-paragraph response approach using the SAFW structure below. Then use the SMARTTe or STAR acronym to clarify the example :

Top Banking Interview Questions : Click Here


SAFW 
Just Say A Few Words. To format your basic answers start by making a general opening Statement, Amplify or clarify this opening with a few sentences, then provide a Few examples to prove your opening point. End your answer with a summary Wrap-up and some hooks to get the interviewer to ask a logical follow-up question. 

SMARTT 
 Examples. describe the Specific task; throw in some Metrics to add color, scope, and scale; add Action verbs describing what you Actually did; define the Result as a deliverable; put a Time frame around the task, describing when it took place and how long it took; describe the Team involved; and then describe the environment including the pace, the resources available, the challenges involved, and role your boss played.

Use STAR 
This is an alternative approach for interviewers asking behavioral questions. When they ask you to give an example of when you used some behavior, skill, or competency, they’ll follow up by asking about the Situation, Task, Action taken, and the Result achieved. You can beat them to the punch by framing your responses the STAR way.

End with a Hook 
Don’t spill everything out at once. You only have 2-3 minutes, so leave a few key details unanswered. This will prompt the interviewer to follow up with some logical questions. A forced hook is something like, “Is this type of project relevant to what you need done?”

Remember the Big E for Example. If you forget all of this, don’t forget to give lots of examples of actual accomplishments to prove every strength and neutralize every weakness.

Interviewers really like it when they don’t have to work too hard to figure out if you’re any good. Well-constructed answers provide insight into your intelligence and potential, your enthusiasm and motivation, your ability to deal with people, and of course how competent you are. Most important of all: your ability to influence others to make important decisions starts by influencing them to hire you.

G.K. Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams


1. Which Asian river is sometimes referred to as ‘The Road to Mandalay’ ?
Answer: Irrawaddy (Myanmar)

2. Where is the headquarters of the Transparency International ?
Answer: Berlin (Germany)

3. Which international organization was founded by Peter Eigen ?
Answer: Transparency International

4. Which is the world’s most saline lake ?
Answer: Lake Vanda (Antarctica)

5. A projectile launched at which degree angle has the greatest range ?
Answer: 45 degree angle

6. What is the unit of measurement of cotton ?
Answer: Bales

7. Which metal is added to fireworks to get the lilac colour ?
Answer: Potassium

8. Which acid is used to acidify foods and beverages such as various colas ?
Answer: Phosphoric Acid

9. What kind of creature is a ‘silverfish’ ?
Answer: Wingless insect

10. Which animal’s walking style is known as ‘Knuckle walking’ ?
Answer: Gorillas and Chimpanzees

11.Who discovered Microphone ?
Answer: Alexander Graham Bell

12. Myopia (Short sightedness) can be corrected by using a _______ lens ?
Answer: Concave

13. Hypermetropia (Long sightedness) can be corrected using a _________ ?
Answer: Convex lens

14. Erg is the unit of _____?
Answer: Work

15. Dyne is the unit of ______ ?
Answer: Force

16. Poise is the unit of _______ ?
Answer: Viscosity of fluid

17.Which cricketer has the nick name Haryana Hurricane ?
Answer: Kapil Dev

18. Who is the law Adviser of the central Government ?
Answer: Attorney General

19. Which is the acid present in tomato ?
Answer: Oxalic acid

20. Which disease is also known as Hansen's disease ?
Answer: Leprosy

21. Who gave the Pacific Ocean its name ?
Answer: Magellan

22.Which state has large number of cinema theater in India?
Answer: Andhara Pradesh

23. Who is known as Modern Bhoja ?
Answer: Krishnadeva Raya

24. Who started Shudhi Movement ?
Answer: Dayananda Saraswathy

25. Which Pakistan President signed the Tashkent Agreement ?
Answer: Ayub Khan

26. Which Substance is known as Philosopher's wool ?
Answer: Zinc Oxide

27. Which Vitamin helps in the absorption of Calcium ?
Answer: Vitamin D

28.Who discovered Rh Factor ?
Answer: Karl Landsteiner (the same person discovered Blood Group)

29. Who wrote the book Harmonies of World ?
Answer: Kepler

30. Where is the Headquarters of Amnesty International ?
Answer: London

31. Which is the shortest River in the world ?
Answer: Roe

32. The image formed on the Retina of the human eye is ________ ?
Answer: Real and inverted

33. Which country’s official currency is the ‘Renminbi’?
Answer: China.


General Knowledge Facts



  1. छिपकली का दिल 1 मिनट में 1000 बार धड़कता है।
  2. अगर एक बिच्छू पर थोड़ी सी मात्रा में भी शराब डाल दी जाए तो यह पागल हो जाएगा और खुद को डंक मार लेगा।
  3. एक औसतन ईन्सान दिन में 10 बार हसता है।
  4. 'TYPEWRITER’ सबसे लंम्बा शब्द है जो कि keyboard पर एक ही लाइन पर टाइप होता है।
  5. ’Uncopyrightable’ एकलौता 15 अक्षरो वाला शब्द है जिसमे कोई भी अक्षर दुबारा नही आता।
  6. एक समुद्री केकडे का दिल उसके सिर में होता है।
  7. फेसबुक के 43 प्रतिशत users पुरुष है वहीं 57 फीसदी महिलाएं।
  8. 100 की उम्र के पार पहुँचने वालो में से 5 में से 4 औरते होती हैं।
  9. यदि कोई व्यक्ति हर वेबसाइट को मात्र एक मिनट तक ब्राउज़ करे तो उसे सारी वेबसाइटें खंगालने में 31000 वर्ष लगेंगे।
  10. यदि कोई व्यक्ति सारे वेबपन्ने पढना चाहे तो उसे ऐसा करने में करीब 6,00,00,000 दशक लग जायेगे।

Monday 24 February 2014

SSC CGL GK Questions in Hindi



1. भारत का दक्षिणतम बिंदु कहलाता है ?
→ इंदिरा पॉइंट
2. 'सतीश धवन अन्तरिक्ष केंद्र कहाँ स्थित है ?
→ श्रीहरिकोटा (आंध्र प्रदेश)
3. नैंसी किस देश का प्रमुख औद्योगिक नगर है ?
→ ब्रिटेन का
4. विश्व का सबसे बड़ा महासागर कौनसा है ?
→ प्रशांत महासागर(Pacific Ocean)
5. पिरेनीज पर्वत किन दो देशों के बीच है ?
→ फ्रांस और स्पेन
6. भारत के किस महत्वपूर्ण स्थान की स्थिति 28.38 N अक्षांश व 77.12 E देशांतर है ?
→ दिल्ली की
7. नासिक किस नदी के तट पर बसा है ?
→ गोदावरी के तट पर
8. उत्तर कोरिया व दक्षिण कोरिया की सीमा किस अक्षांश रेखा द्वारा निर्धारित होती है ?
→ 38० - Parallel द्वारा
9. स्प्रिंग इक्विनाक्स किस तारिख को पड़ता है ?
→ 21 मार्च को
10. एस्किमो लोगों का प्रमुख धंधा क्या है ?
→ मछली पकड़ना तथा शिकार करना

11. इंसुलिन की खोज किसने की ?
→ एफ. टी . बेन्टिंग
12. नेत्रदान में आँख का कौन सा भाग प्रयुक्त किया जाता है ?
→ कॉर्निया
13. दिल्ली की प्रसिद्द जामा मस्जिद का निर्माण किसने करवाया ?
→ शाहजहाँ ने
14. एक रूपये के नोट पर किसके हस्ताक्षर होते है ?
→ वित्त सचिव, भारत सरकार
15. मुद्रास्फीति में बाजार में उपलब्ध वस्तुओ की कीमत होती है ?
→ महँगी
16. निम्न में से कौन सा बैंक भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक के नियन्त्रण में है ?
→ सेन्ट्रल बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया
17. भारतीय नागरिकों को प्रदान किए गये मूल अधिकारों को ?
→ निलम्बित किया जा सकता है
18. 'दोअब' शब्द का अर्थ होता है ?
→ नदी की दो शाखाओं के बीच की भूमि
19. सैंधव सभ्यता के निवासियों द्वारा निम्न में से किस धातु का प्रयोग सर्वाधिक किया गया ?
→ कांस्य
20. डूरण्ड रेखा निम्न में से किन देशों कि सीमाओं का सीमांकन करती है ?
→ पाकिस्तान और अफगानिस्तान

21. भूकम्पमापी उपकरण को कहा जाता है ?
→ सीस्मोग्रा
22. निगम कर निम्न में से किसके द्वारा लगाया जाता है ?
→ केन्द्र सरकार
23. यदि एक व्यक्ति दो समतल दर्पण, जो 60 अंश कोण पर आनत हैं, के बीच खड़ा हो तो उसके कितने प्रतिबिंब दिखेंगे ?
→ 5
24. हीमोफीलिया एक अनुवांशिक विकार है, जो उत्पन्न करता है ?
→ रक्त का स्पन्दन न होना (non clotting)
25. जब भारतीय मुस्लिम लीग को अन्तरिम सरकार में सम्मिलित किया गया था, तब लियाकत अली खां को जो विभाग दिया गया, वह था ?
→ वित्त
26. तीन वार्षिक परीक्षाओं में, जिनमें प्रत्येक का योगांक 500 है, एक विद्यार्थी को प्रथम एवं द्वितीय वार्षिक परीक्षाओं में औसत अंक क्रमशः 45% और 55% प्राप्त हुए, 60% का समग्र औसत प्राप्त करने के लिए तीसरी वार्षिक परीक्षा में उसे कितने अंक प्राप्त करने आवश्यक हैं ?
→ 400
27. बैंकों को अपने रोकड़ शेष और कुल परिसम्पत्ति के मध्य एक निश्चित अनुपात रखना पड़ता है जिसे कहते हैं ?
→ SLR
28. निम्न घटनाओं में से किस एक को मांटेग्यू ने"निवारक हत्या"नाम से विशेषीकृत किया है ?
→ जलियांवाला बाग का नरसंहार
29. गदर पार्टी के नेता थे ?
→ लाला हरदयाल
30. यूरोपीय संघ की मुद्रा है ?
→ यूरो

31. पुस्तक वन नाईट एट कॉल सेंटर के लेखक है
→ चेतन भगत
32. फुटबॉल खिलाडी माराडोना किस देश से है
→ अर्जेंटिना
33. केयर्न एनर्जी का मुख्यालय है
→  स्काटलेण्ड में
34. केरल राज्य विश्व भर में निम्न में से किसके संवर्ध्दन के लिए जाना जाता है ?
→ गरम मसाले
35. भारत का क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से विश्व मेँ कौन सा स्थान है?
→ सातवां
36. नाभिकीय रिअक्टार का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ एनीको फर्मी
37. सड़क निर्माण की खोज किसने की ?
→ जे एल मेक एडम
38. रेडियम की खोज किसने की ?
→ मैडम क्युरी और पियारे क्युरी ने
39. दूरबीन की खोज किसने की ?
→ गैलिलियो
40. टेलीफोन की खोज किसने की ?
→ एलेक्जेंडर ग्रैहम बेल


41. वेंटीलेटर का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ अबद -अल-लतीफ़-अल-बगदादी
42. कप्यूटर के माउस का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ डगलस कार्ल एंजेलबर्ट
43. बायरलेस रिमोट का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ रोबर्ट एडलर
44. फाउंटेन पेन का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ बाटर मेन
45. डायना माईट का अविष्कार किसने किया ?
→ अल्फ्रेड नोबेल
46 ओलम्पिक खेल कितने वर्ष के अंतराल पर आयोजित किए जाते हैं ?
→ 4
47 'यूरो कप' किस खेल से संबंधित है ?
→ फ़ुटबॉल
48. भारत के प्रथम टेस्ट क्रिकेट कप्तान कौन थे ?
→ सी. के. नायडू
49. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पुरस्कार 'क्रिकेट का ऑस्कर' कहलाता है ?
→ आई.सी.सी. पुरस्कार
50. राष्ट्रमंडल खेलों का प्रथम आयोजन कब हुआ ?
→ 1930

51. क्रिकेट से संबंधित प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक 'क्रिकेट माई स्टाइल' के लेखक कौन हैं ?
→ कपिल देव
52. क्रिकेट की अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संस्था है ?
→ ICC
53. वाटर पोलो में खिलाड़ियों की संख्या होती है ?
→ 7
54. भारतीय क्रिकेट के स्तम्भ राहुल द्रविड़ का उपनाम है ?
→ मिस्टर रिलायबल, द वॉल, जेमी
55. दो बार माउण्ट एवरेस्ट पर विजय प्राप्त करने वाली प्रथम महिला कौन थी ?
→ संतोष यादव
56. शतरंज का जन्मदाता देश किसे कहा जाता है ?
→ भारत
57. क्रिकेट खेल की शुरुआत किस देश में हुई ?
→ इंग्लैंड
58. कबड्डी के खेल में प्रत्येक पक्ष में खिलाड़ियों की संख्या होती है ?
→ 7
59. 'सनी डेज' नामक चर्चित पुस्तक किसकी है ?
→ सुनील गावस्कर
60. फिरोजशाह कोटला ग्राउण्ड स्थित है ?
→ दिल्ली


61. निम्न में से किस खेल मैदान का आकार सबसे बड़ा होता है ?
→ पोलो
62. क्रिकेट में भूमि से स्टम्प्स की ऊँचाई होती है ?
→ 27 इंच
63. वानखेड़े स्टेडियम कहाँ अवस्थित है ?
→ मुम्बई
64. इंदिरा गाँधी स्वर्ण कप का संबंध निम्नलिखित में से किस खेल से है ?
→ अंतर्राष्ट्रीय हॉकी प्रतियोगिता
65. भारत में पोलो खेल का प्रचलन किसने प्रारम्भ किया ?
→ तुर्क
66. रनर शब्द किस खेल से संबंधित है ?
→ क्रिकेट
67. सुभाष चंद्र बोस खेल संस्थान कहाँ अवस्थित है ?
→ पटियाला
68. तानिया सचदेव ने किस खेल में प्रसिद्धि प्राप्त की है ?
→ शतरंज
69. राधामोहन का संबंध किस खेल से है ?
→ पोलो
70. क्रिकेट में पॉपिंग क्रीज़ की माप होती है ?
→ 4 फुट

71. ईरान का नेपोलियन किसे कहा जाता है ?
→ नादिरशाह
72. तुजुके-ए-जहांगीरी को पूरा किसने किया ?
→ मौतबिंद खां
73. अंग्रेजों ने बहादुरशाह जफर को बंदी बना कर कहां भेज दिया था ?
→ रंगून
74. पानीपत का तीसरा युद्ध किसके बीच हुआ ?
→ मराठा व अहमदशाह अब्दाली (1761)
75. स्वतंत्र श्रमिक पार्टी का संस्थापक कौन था ?
→ बी. आर. अंबेडकर
76. ब्रिजटाऊन किस देश की राजधानी है ?
→ बारबाडोस की
77. विश्व की कौनसी नदी भूमध्य रेखा को दो बार क्रॉस करती है ?
→ कांगो नदी
78. 'डूरंड रेखा' किन दो देशों के बीच अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमा निर्धारित करती है ?
→ अफगानिस्तान और भारत के बीच
79. उड़ीसा में 'सिमिलीपाल वन्य अभ्यारण्य' कहाँ स्थित है ?
→ मयूरभंज में
80. 'यूरोप का कॉकपिट' किस देश को कहते हैं ?
→ बेल्जियम को

81. पहला संवैधानिक संशोधन अधिनियम कब बना ?
→ 1951
82. राष्ट्रपति पद के निर्वाचन हेतु उम्मीदवार की अधिकतम आयु कितनी होनी चाहिए ?
→ कोई सीमा नहीं
83. भारत का संविधान कब अंगीकर किया गया था ?
→ 26 नवम्बर,1949
84. किस वर्ष गांधी जयंती के दिन केंद्रीय प्रशासनिक अधिकरण की स्थापना की गयी ?
→ 1985
85. विधान परिषद को समाप्त करने वाला आखिरी राज्य कौन है ?
→ तमिलनाडु
86. लोकसभा का सचिवालय किसकी देख-रेख में कार्य करता है ?
→ संसदीय मामले के मंत्री
87. ‘विधान परिषद’ का सदस्य होने के लिए कम से कम कितनी आयु होनी चाहिए ?
→ 30 वर्ष
88. “राज्यपाल सोने के पिंजरे में निवास करने वाली चिड़िया के समतुल्य है।” यह किसका कथन है ?
→ सरोजिनी नायडू
89. देश के किस राज्य में सर्वप्रथम गैर-कांग्रेसी सरकार गठित हुई ?
→ 1957, केरल
90. किस राज्य की विधान परिषद की सदस्य संख्या सर्वाधिक है ?
→ उत्तर प्रदेश

91. महादेवी पहाडियाँ किसका अभिन्न अंग हैं ?
→ सतपुड़ा की
92. किस महाद्वीप में जन्म दर और मृत्यु दर सबसे कम है ?
→ यूरोप
93. ऊष्ण कतिबन्धीय वनों का सर्वाधिक प्रतिशत किस देश में मिलता है ?
→ ब्राजील में
94. मैटर हार्न कहाँ स्थित है ?
→ आल्पस पर्वत पर
95. 'विश्व का फेंफड़ा' की संज्ञा किसे दी गयी है ?
→ विषुवतीय सदाबहार वन
96. अम्लीय वर्षा का कारण क्या है ?
→ सल्फर डाईऑक्साइड
97. ऑस्ट्रेलिया में बॉस जलसन्धि किसके लिए प्रसिद्द है ?
→ पेट्रोलियम के लिए
98. जम्मू-श्रीनगर राजमार्ग पर स्थित जवाहर सुरंग किसके नीचे बनायीं गयी है ?
→ पीर पंजाल श्रेणी के नीचे से
99. भारत में वर्षा का न्यूनतम विचलन कहाँ पाया जाता है ?
→ असम
100. उत्तरी अमरीका के मूल निवासी किस प्रजातीय वर्ग से समबन्धित थे ?
→ मंगोलायड

101. अरावली एवं विन्ध्य श्रंखलाओं के मध्य कौनसा पठार स्थित है ?
→ मालवा का पठार
102. भारत के किस राज्य की सीमा तीन देशों क्रमश नेपाल, भूटान एवं चीन से मिलती है ?
→ सिक्किम की
103. भारत में गेहूँ का उत्पादन सर्वाधिक किस राज्य में होता है ?
→ उत्तर प्रदेश
104. भारत में तम्बाकू का सर्वाधिक उत्पादन करने वाला राज्य कौनसा है ?
→ आंध्र प्रदेश
105. कौनसी नदी 'बंगाल का दुःख' कहलाती है ?
→ दामोदर नदी
106. मालदीव किस महासागर का द्वीप है ?
→ हिंद महासागर का
107. लोकटक झील, जिस पर जलविद्युत परियोजना का निर्माण किया गया है, किस राज्य में स्थित है ?
→ मणिपुर में
108. भारत का दक्षिणतम छोर 'इन्दिरा पॉइंट' किस द्वीप पर स्थित है ?
→ वृहत निकोबार द्वीप में
109. किस राज्य की सीमा पर भारत-चीन व्यापर मार्ग पर 'नाथू ला' स्थित है ?
→ सिक्किम की सीमा पर
110. रिहन्द घाटी परियोजना किस राज्य की परियोजना है ?
→ उत्तर प्रदेश की

111. भारत में सर्वाधिक वर्षा वाला स्थान मासिनराम किस राज्य में है ?
→ मेघालय में
112. सरदार सरोवर किस राज्य में स्थित है ?
→ गुजरात में
113. पेरियार जलविद्युत परियोजना किस राज्य में है ?
→ केरल में
114. अमरकंटक पत्थर से निकलकर अलग-अलग दिशाओं में बहने वाली दो प्रमुख नदियाँ हैं ?
→ नर्मदा और सोन नदियाँ
115. न्यू मूर द्वीप, जो भारत और बांग्लादेश के मध्य विवाद का कारण है, कहाँ है ?
→ बंगाल की खाडी में
116. ऐनू जनजाति कहाँ पाई जाती है ?
→ जापान में
117. हारमुज जलसन्धि किन दो देशों को अलग करती है ?
→ ओमान और ईरान को
118. कौनसा नगर जापान का पित्त्स्बर्ग कहा जाता है ?
→ ओसाका
119. मोटरगाडी निर्माण करने वाली विश्व की प्रसिद्द हेनरी फोर्ड कंपनी किस शहर में है ?
→ डेटराईट [Detroit]
120. पोर्ट ऑफ़ स्पेन किस देश की राजधानी है ?
→ त्रिनिदाद और टोबेगो की

121. हिन्द महासागर का सबसे बड़ा द्वीप कौन सा है ?
→ मेडागास्कर
122. स्वेज नाहर किन दो समुद्रों को जोड़ती है ?
→ लाल सागर और भूमध्य सागर
123. अजीजिया विश्व का सबसे अधिक गर्म स्थान माना जाता है ?
→ लीबिया (उत्तरी अफ्रीका) में
124. विश्व का सबसे ऊँचा जलप्रपात एंजिल किस देश में है ?
→ वेनेजुएला (दक्षिण अफ्रीका) में
125. भारत का सर्वाधिक वर्षा वाला स्थान मासिनराम किस राज्य में है ?
→ मेघालय
126. भारत का मानक समय ग्रीनविच के पूर्व किस देशांतर का समय है ?
→ 82 1/२ अक्षांश का
127. भारत व पाकिस्तान को विभाजित करने वाली रेखा है ?
→ रेडक्लिफ लाइन
128. गंगा डेल्टा के शीर्ष पर कौनसी पहाडियां स्थित हैं ?
→ राजमहल पहाडियाँ
129. खासी और जैन्तियाँ की पहाडियाँ किस राज्य में स्थित हैं ?
→ मेघालय
130. न्यू मूर द्वीप कहाँ स्थित है ?
→ बंगाल की खाडी में

131. 0० अक्षांश तथा 0० देशांतर की भौगोलिक स्थिति कहाँ है ?
→ दक्षिणी अटलांटिक महासागर में
132. अंडमान-निकोबार द्वीप समूह की राजधानी पोर्ट ब्लेयर किस द्वीप में स्थित है ?
→ दक्षिण अंडमान में
133. राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग NH-7 कहाँ से कहाँ तक विस्तृत है ?
→ वाराणसी से कन्याकुमारी तक
134. एंडीज पर्वत किस महाद्वीप में है ?
→ दक्षिण अमरीका में
135. 'एल नीनो' धारा किस देश के समुद्र तट के सहारे प्रवाहित होती है ?
→ पेरू(Peru) के समुद्र तट के सहारे
136. भारत में पंचायती राज का शुभारंभ कहां पर हुआ ?
→ नागौर
137. लोक लेखा समिति के सदस्यों का कार्यकाल कितना होता है ?
→ एक वर्ष के लिए
138. भारत में प्रथम आपातकाल कब लगाया गया ?
→ 26 अक्टूबर 1962
139. एशिया में सर्वाधिक जलयान बनाने वाला देश है ?
→ जापान
140. कन्याकुमारी से कृष्णा डेल्टा तक का तट क्या कहलाता है ?
→ कोरोमंडल तट

141. लैम्पों में प्रकाश उत्पन्न करने के काम में कौन सी गैस उपयोग में लायी जाती है ?
→ ऐसीटलीन
142. कच्चे फलों को पकाने में कौन सी गैस उपयोग में लायी जाती है ?
→ ऐथिलीन
143. आयु निर्धारण में कार्बन के किस समस्थानिक का उपयोग करते हैं ?
→ C14
144. नाभिकीय रिएक्टर में भारी जल का उपयोग का किस रूप में किया जाता है ?
→ न्यूट्रान मंदक के रूप में
145. सूर्य के उच्च ताप का कारण क्या है ?
→ हाईड्रोजन का नाभिकीय संलयन‬

10 Rarely Used Words starting with 'D' and 'E'


1. Diaphanous :-
Meaning : Transparent
Usage : A diaphanous door.

2. Disport :-
Meaning : to smile
Usage : People disported themselves at the stage show.

3. Dulcet :-
Meaning : Sweet sounding
Usage : I thought I recognized your dulcet tone.

4. Despondency :-
Meaning : hopeless, sad
Usage : It is very difficult to come out from despondency after his father’s death.

5. Didactic :-
Meaning : a bitter; criticism in speck writing
Usage : Launch a diatribe against the government.

6. Exculpate :-
Meaning : Prove guiltless
Usage : The Supreme Court exculpated Sanjay Dutt from TADA Case.

7. Encumber :-
Meaning : to become burden
Usage : Travelling is difficult when you’re encumbered with heavy suitcase s.

8. Extol :-
Meaning : to praise highly
Usage : He was extolled as a hero.

9. Effulgent :-
Meaning : shinning brilliantly
Usage : The effulgent beauty.

10. Ephemeral :-
Meaning : short lived
Usage : Ephemeral mosquitoes during the rainy season.

Sunday 23 February 2014

Result for National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT) Entrance Test 2014


NIFT, New Delhi has released the dates for NIFT entrance exam 2014. The exam is scheduled to be held in February this year. It is both a paper-based and computer-based test. The paper-based test 1 held on February 9 and the paper-based test 2 will be held on February 23. The computer based test is also scheduled for the same date i.e. February 23.

What is NIFT Entrance Test ?

The NIFT entrance exam is a door to admission for :

  • Bachelors of design programs in 
  1. Accessory design
  2. Fashion communication
  3. Fashion design
  4. Knitwear design
  5. Leather design and textile design
  6. Bachelor of Fashion Technology (B.F.Tech) in apparel production
  • Master of Design (M.Des)
  • Master of Fashion Management (MFM)
  • Master of Fashion Technology (MFT) programs for the academic session 2014

Eligibility criteria

For applying to B.F.Tech in apparel design: The candidate should have passed the +2 level examination in the 10+2 pattern of examination of any recognized Central/State Board of Secondary Examination, with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics, or the candidate should have cleared General Certificate Education (GCE) Examination (London/Cambridge/Sri- Lanka) at the advanced (A) level with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics /International Baccalaureate.

For applying to M.Des programs: The candidate should possess n undergraduate degree from any institute/university recognized by law in India or diploma in UG Design from NIFT/NID only and undergraduate diploma of minimum three years duration from NIFT / NID.

How to apply

The candidates can apply online through the official website. The application fee is Rs1, 200 for general candidates (in case of SC/ ST/ PHP categories, an amount of Rs600 is to be paid). The application fee can either be paid online or through bank demand draft issued in favour of "NIFT HO" payable at New Delhi. The candidates applying through demand draft are required to send the print out of the application form, duly filled in all aspects, along with the demand draft to "Project Manager-CMS All India Management Association, Management House, 14, Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003".

Paper pattern

This three-hour test will contain objective type questions. Each negative answer will lead to a deduction of 0.25 marks whereas for every correct answer, the candidate will score 1 mark.

Important Dates

Date for paper-based test 1: February 9
Date for paper-based test 2: February 23
Date for computer-based test: February 23

RESULT TO BE ANNOUNCED SOON !

Check Here : NIFT OFFICIAL WEBSITE

KEEP VISTING FOR THE LATEST UPDATES

Top Banking Interview Questions



(1) Why do you want join banking sector?
(2) What is bank and its features and types?
(3) What is Private Banking?
(4) What is the difference between Nationalized bank and Private Bank ?
(5) What is RBI and Functions of RBI?
(6) What is the difference between NBFCs and Bank?
(7) What is the Use of Computers in a Bank?
(8) What is recession? What is the cause for the present recession?
(9) What is Sub-prime crisis?
(10) What is FII and FDI? What is the difference between FII and FDI?
(11) What is a Repo Rate?
(12) What is Reverse Repo Rate?
(13) What is CRR Rate?
(14) What is SLR Rate?
(15) What is Bank Rate?
(16) What is Inflation?
(17) What is Deflation?
(18) What is PLR?
(19) What is Deposit Rate?
(20) What is IPO?
(21) What is Disinvestment?
(22) What is Fiscal Deficit?
(23) What is Revenue deficit?
(24) What is GDP & GNP?
(25) What is National Income?
(26) What is Per Capita Income?
(27) What is SEZ?
(28) What is Fiscal Policy?
(29) What is Right to information Act?
(30) What is Cheque?
(31) What is demand Draft?
(32) What is a NBFC?
(33) What is NABARD?
(34) What is SIDBI?
(35) What is SENSEX and NIFTY?
(36) What is SEBI?
(37) What are Mutual funds?
(38) What are non-perfoming assets?
(39) What is Recession?
(40) What is foreign exchange reservers?
(41) What is Customer Relationship Management CRM?
(42) What is dematerialisation ?
(43) What is Bancassurance ?
(44) What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility LAF ?
(45) What is Money Laundering

Saturday 22 February 2014

List of Miss World (1951-2013)




Miss World 1951 - Kiki Haakonson, Sweden
Miss World 1952 - May Louise Flodin, Sweden
Miss World 1953 - Denise Perrier, France
Miss World 1954 - Antigone Costanda, Egypt
Miss World 1955 - Carmen Zubillaga, Venezuela
Miss World 1956 - Petra Schurmann, Germany
Miss World 1957 - Marita Lindahl, Finland
Miss World 1958 - Penelope Coelen, South Africa
Miss World 1959 - Corine Rottschafer, Holland
Miss World 1960 - Norma Cappagli, Argentina
Miss World 1961 - Rosemarie Frankland, United Kingdom
Miss World 1962 - Catharine Lodders, Holland
Miss World 1963 - Carole Crawford, Jamaica
Miss World 1964 - Ann Sidney, United Kingdom
Miss World 1965 - Lesley Langley, United Kingdom
Miss World 1966 - Reita Faria, India
Miss World 1967 - Madeiline Hartog Bel, Peru
Miss World 1968 - Penelope Plummer, Australia
Miss World 1969 - Eva Reuber Staier, Austria
Miss World 1970 - Jennifer Hosten, Grenada
Miss World 1971 - Lucia Petterle, Brazil
Miss World 1972 - Belina Green, Australia
Miss World 1973 - Marjorie Wallace, USA
Miss World 1974 - Anneline Kriel, South Africa
Miss World 1975 - Winelia Merced, Puerto Rico
Miss World 1976 - Cindy Breakspeare, Jamaica
Miss World 1977 - Mary Stavin, Sweden
Miss World 1978 - Silvana Suarez, Argentina
Miss World 1979 - Gina Swainson, Bermuda
Miss World 1980 - Kimberly Santos, Guam
Miss World 1981 - Pilin Leon, Venezuela
Miss World 1982 - Mariasela Lebron, Dominican Republic
Miss World 1983 - Sarah Jane Hutt, United Kingdom
Miss World 1984 - Astrid Herrera, Venezuela
Miss World 1985 - Hofi Karlsdottir, Iceland
Miss World 1986 - Giselle Laronde, Trinidad
Miss World 1987 - Ulla Weigerstorfer, Austria
Miss World 1988 - Linda Petursdottir, Iceland
Miss World 1989 - Andeta Kreglicka, Poland
Miss World 1990 - Gina Marie Tolleson, USA
Miss World 1991 - Ninebeth Jiminez, Venezuela
Miss World 1992 - Julia Kourotchkina, Russia
Miss World 1993 - Lisa Hanna, Jamaica
Miss World 1994 - Aishwariya Rai, India
Miss World 1995 - Jacqueline Aquilera, Venezuela
Miss World 1996 - Irene Skliva ,Greece
Miss World 1997 - Diana Hayden, India
Miss World 1998 - Linor Abargil, Israel
Miss World 1999 - Yukta Mookhey, India
Miss World 2000 - Priyanka Chopra, India
Miss World 2001 - Ibiagbanidokibubo Asenite Darego—Nigeria
Miss World 2002 - Azra Akin—Turkey
Miss World 2003 - Rosanna Davidson, Ireland
Miss World 2004 - Maria Julia Mantilla Garcia, Peru
Miss World 2005 - Unnur Birna Vilhjalmsdottir, Iceland
Miss World 2006 - Tat’ana Kucharova, Czech Republic
Miss World 2007 - Zhang Zhi Li, China PR
Miss World 2008 - Ksenia Sukhinova, Russia
Miss World 2009 - Kaiane Aldorino, Gibraltar
Miss World 2010 - Alexandria Mills, USA
Miss World 2011 - Ivian Sarcos, Venezuela
Miss World 2012 - Wen Xia Yu, China PR
Miss World 2013 - Megan Young, Philippines

Nickname of Various Indian Cities


Hi-Tech City - Hyderabad
Manchester of South India - Coimbatore
Deccan Queen - Pune
City of weavers - Panipat
Old Ganga - Godavari
Dakshin Ganga - Kaveri
Milk Pail of India - Haryana
Gardan city of India - Bangalore
Sapce city of India - Bangalore
Electronic city of India - Bangalore
Pensioners' Paradise - Bangalore
Jewel of India - Manipur
Scotland of the east - Shillong
Temple city of India - Bhuvaneswar
Cathedral city of India - Bhuvaneswar.
Silk city - Brahmapur
Wonderful city - Bolangir
Orange city - Nagpur
Rose city - Jaipur

List of Governors of Indian States


1. Andaman & Nicobar : A. K. Singh (Lieutenant-Governor)

2. Andhra Pradesh : Shri. E. S. L. Narasimhan

3. Arunachal Pradesh : Nirbhay Sharma

4. Assam : Janaki Ballabh Patnaik

5. Bihar : DY Patil

6. Chandigarh : Shri Shivraj V. Patil (Administrator)

7. Chhattisgarh : Shri Shekhar Dutt

8. Goa : Shri Bharat Vir Wanchoo

9. Gujarat : Dr. Kamla Beniwal

10. Haryana : Shri Jagannath Pahadia

11. Himachal Pradesh : Urmila Singh

12. Jammu and Kashmir : Narinder Nath Vohra

13. Jharkhand : Dr. Syed Ahmed

14. Karnataka : Hansraj Bhardwaj

15. Kerala : Shri Nikhil Kumar

16. Madhya Pradesh : Ram Naresh Yadav

17. Maharashtra : K. Sankaranarayanan

18. Manipur : Vinod Kumar Duggal

19. Meghalaya : K. K. Paul

20. Mizoram : Shri Vakkom Purushothaman

21. Nagaland : Shri Ashwani Kumar

22. New Delhi : Najeeb Jung (Lieutenant-Governor)

23. Orissa : Shri S. C. Jamir

24. Puducherry : Virendra Kataria (Lieutenant-Governor)

25. Punjab : Shri Shivraj Patil

26. Rajasthan : Margaret Alva

27. Sikkim : Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil

28. Tamil Nadu : Konijeti Rosaiah

29. Tripura : Shri Devanand Konwar

30. Uttar Pradesh : Shri Banwari Lal Joshi

31. Uttarakhand : Aziz Qureshi

32. West Bengal : Shri M. K Narayanan

33. Dadra and Nagar Haveli : Shri B.S. Bhalla (Administrator)

34. Daman and Diu : Shri B.S. Bhalla (Administrator)

35. Lakshadweep : Shri H. Rajesh Prasad

Tuesday 18 February 2014

HIGHLIGHTS OF INTERIM BUDGET 2014


Union Finance Minister Chidambaram Palaniappan. has given signals about the upcoming budget with the interm budget as follows , very important for upcoming all banking exam helding in year 2014 :-

* Fiscal deficit for current fiscal to be 4.6%.

* Revenue deficit estimated at 3% for current fiscal year.

* Excise duty on SUV s cut from 30 to 24%, in large and mid-segment cars from 27-24% to 24-20%

* Excise duty on small cars, motorcycles and commercial vehicles cut from 12% to 8%; appropriate cut to be done on chassis, trailers

* A Rs 100 crore scheme formulated to promote community radio stations.

* We must focus on manufacturing, specially manufacturing for exports.

* No changes in tax laws in interim budget

* Government has obtained information in 67 cases of illegal offshore accounts of Indian citizen.

* Excise duty cut from 12 to 10 per cent in capital goods sector to stimulate growth

* Excise duty on mobile handset to be 6% on CENVAT credit to encourage domestic production

* Excise duty on small cars, motorcycles and SUV s reduced.

* Service tax relief storage for warehousing for rice.

* Blood banks to be exempt from service tax

* Rs 500 crore estimated requirement for implementing one-rank-one-pay scheme for armed forces in 2014-15.

* Rs 6000 crore to rural housing fund, Rs 2000 crore for urban housing fund.

* Minority bank accounts have swelled to 43,53,000 by 2013-14 from 14,15,000 bank accounts 10 years ago

* Rs 3711 crore for minority affairs; housing and urban poverty alleviation gets Rs 6000 crore

* Social justice ministry gets Rs 6730 crore; Panchayati Raj Ministry Rs 7000 crore.

* Moratorium on interest on student loans taken before March 31, 2009; to benefit 9 lakh borrowers.

* Public Debt Management Bill ready.

* Fiscal deficit target of 3% to be achieved by 2017.

* Fiscal deficit to be contained at 4.6% of GDP in 2013-14.

* CAD will be $45 billion in 2013-14

* Foreign exchange reserves up by $15 billion

* Food grain production estimated at 263 million tons in 2013-14.

* Agriculture credit will cross $45 billion against $41 billion in 2012-13.

* 296 projects worth Rs 6,60,000 crore cleared by Cabinet Committee on Investment by end January 2014.

* Merchandise export to grow by 6.8% to $326 billion.

* 3 more industrial corridors — Chennai-Bangalore, Bangalore-Mumbai, Amritsar-Kolkata — under various stages of implementation.

* GDP growth rate in Q3 and Q4 of 2013-14 will be at least 5.2%.

* Declining fiscal deficit, moderation of CAD, stable exchange rate and increase in project implementation result of hard work

* Power capacity rises to 234,600 MW in 10 years.

* Expenditure on education has risen from Rs 10,145 crore 10 years ago to Rs 79,251 crore this year.

* Sugar decontrol, gradual correction of diesel prices, application for new bank licenses, sick electricity distribution companies restructured.

* Average growth under UPA's ten year rule was 6.2 per cent against 5.9 during NDA period of 1999-2004

* Average growth under UPA-I was 8.4 per cent and UPA-II 6.6 per cent.

* PSUs to achieve record capex of Rs 2,57,645 crore in 2013-14.

* 500 MW fast breeder nuclear reaction in Kalpakkam to be ready shortly; 7 nuclear power reactors under construction.

* National Solar Mission to undertake 4 ultra mega solar power projects in 2014-15.

* Rs 1,200 crore additional assistance to N-E states to be released before end of the year

* Rs 1,000 crore grant for Nirbhaya Fund will be non-lap sable; another Rs 1,000 crore to be given next fiscal.

* Rs 3,370 crore to transferred to 2.1 crore LPG users

* Govt committed to Aadhaar-based LPG transfer but scheme on hold temporarily.

* Aadhaar is tool for empowerment.

* Non-plan expenditure to exceed by a small amount in 2013-14.

* 500 MW fast breeder test reactor in Kalpakkam to be ready shortly; 7 nuclear power reactors under construction.

* Plan expenditure will be Rs 5,55,322 crore in 2014-15, unchanged from last fiscal.

* Budgetary support to railways increased from Rs 26,000 crore to Rs 29,000 crore 2014-15.

* Rs 2,46,397 crore allocated for food, fertilizer and fuel subsidy.

* Food subsidy will be Rs 1,15,000 crore for implementation of National Food Security Act.

* Defense allocation increased by 10 per cent to Rs 2.24 lakh crore.

Monday 10 February 2014

Current Affairs 9 february 2014


Current Affairs : 9 february 2014


  1. Sikkim has become the only state in the country to achieve more than 100 percent sanitation in rural and urban households, schools, sanitary complexes and Aanganwadi centres. All 6,10,577 inhabitants in Sikkim have latrines with high sanitation and hygiene standards.  The state has also sensitised people to adopt a holistic approach to improve sanitation and hygiene in a clean environment while accelerating its overall development. Sikkim also topped the list among all states of the country in net performance indicators.
  2. India’s central bank, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) removed 26 per cent cap on the interest rate that can be charged by a microfinance company to its borrowers. The central bank has also prescribed a new method of determining the rate for the industry. The RBI said that MFIs can arrive at their lending rate by calculating their cost of funds and adding the prescribed margin. The new method will allow the companies to determine their interest rates.
  3. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development has sanctioned Rs 348.63 crore to Karnataka under Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF). Nabard’s assistance to Karnataka Government is under RIDF XIX for construction of 174 road projects and 33 bridge projects by Public Works Department (Rs 152.60 crore), 24 rural road and three bridge projects by Tourism Department (Rs 65.68 crore), 127 veterinary institution projects by Animal Husbandry Department (Rs 30.32 crore), 60 Raitha Sampark Kendras by Agriculture Department (Rs23.37 crore) and nine maternal and child hospital projects by Health Department (Rs 76.66 crore) in different districts of the State.
  4. Veteran Nepali Congress leader Sushil Koirala is set to become the next prime minister of Nepal with the support of the CPN-UML, ending months of political gridlock following last year’s elections. The Parliament of Nepal will elect Koirala, 75, as prime minister on Monday following the Constituent Assembly elections on 19th November that failed to throw up a clear winner.
  5. Waitlisted passengers will soon get status messages in their mobile phones if their tickets get confirmed before journey. A senior Railway Ministry official said the waitlisted passenger will get a SMS about the status of the ticket on the mobile phone number given at the time of ticket booking before the journey.
  6. Maruti Suzuki India Limited (MSIL) stopped the production of the iconic car brand Maruti 800 that had been carrier for millions of middle class Indian families. The company in its announcement claimed the production was the car was stopped in 18 January 2014. Executive Director of MSIL, CV Raman in the announcement said that the spare parts of the car will be available in the market for next 8 to 10 years as per the rules, even after the production was stopped.
  7. New Zealand have registered their 1st Test win against India since 2002. They beat India by 40 runs & take a 1-0 lead in the two-Test series. Man of the Match : NZ Captain +Brendon McCullum  for his brilliant double century in 1st innings. 
  8. Kumar Sangakkara, the cricketer of Sri Lankan national team became the second person in the history of Cricket to score a triple century and a century in the same test match. By performing the rare record, he joined Graham Gooch, the former skipper of England team. He achieved this reach by scoring 319 runs in the first inning of the match and 105 runs in the second innings. He achieved this record, while playing in the second test match against Bangladesh.
  9. The decks were cleared on Sunday for India’s return to the Olympic fold after a 14-month suspension with Indian Olympic Association conducting its polls with N Ramachandran being elected as the president. Kho-Kho Federation of India President Rajeev Mehta and All India Tennis Association (AITA) chief Anil Khanna were also elected unopposed as Secretary General and Treasurer respectively in the polls which marked the exit of corruption-tainted Abhay Singh Chautala and Lalit Bhanot from the IOA.